ITIL Intermediate Certification Exam Questions and Answers

ITIL Intermediate certification exam questions and answers

The ITIL Intermediate certifications are focused on service lifecycle and service lifecycle.  To obtain ITIL Intermediary certification, ITIL foundation course and a minimum two years of experience in IT service management is necessary. The service lifecycle consists of the following modules:

• Service Strategy (SS)
• Service Design (SD)
• Service Transition (ST)
• Service Operation (SO)
• Continual Service Improvement (CSI).

The service capability has the following modules:

• Operational Support and Analysis (OSA)
• Planning, Protection and Optimization (PPO)
• Release, Control and Validation (RCV)
• Service Offerings and Agreements (SOA).

We have compiled ITIL intermediate exam sample questions along with the answers explaining the reasons for you to quickly recap what you have learned before appearing the ITIL Intermediate certification exam. These exam dumps are quick capsule for you to practice before appearing the certification exam.

Exam Details: https://www.axelos.com/certifications/itil-certifications/itil-intermediate-level

Exam Name : ITIL intermediary certification in IT service management

Duration: 90 minutes

No. of questions: 40

Passing score:      70%

Validated against: AXELOS

Study material format: Closed book, multiple choice questions

ITIL intermediate exam cost: 350 USD

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1. Which of the following is not provided as part of a test model?

A. A test plan

B. A list of what is to be tested

C. Test scripts that define how each element will be tested

D. A test report

A test report is created after the test is done with all the details. It is not a part of the test model.

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2. Which is the correct order of actions when a release is being tested?

A. Perform tests, design tests, verify test plan, prepare test environment, test cleanup and closure, and evaluate exit criteria and report

B.  Design tests, perform tests, verify test plan, prepare test environment, evaluate exit criteria and report, and test cleanup and closure

C.  Design tests, verify test plan, prepare test environment, perform tests, evaluate exit criteria and report, and test cleanup and closure

D.  Verify test plan, design tests, prepare test environment, evaluate exit criteria and report, perform tests, and test cleanup and closure

The correct order of activities when a release is being tested is design tests, verify test plan, prepare test environment, perform tests, evaluate exit criteria and report, test cleanup and closure.

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3. The entry and exit criteria for testing are defined in?

A. The SKMS

B. The CMS

C. The KEDB

D. The SDP

The service design package (SDP) designs the entry and exit criteria for testing.

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4. The diagram mapping the types of test to each stage of development to ensure that testing covers business and service requirements as well as technical ones is known as what?

A. DIKW

B. The service V-model

C. The test plan

D. The test strategy

The left-hand side of the service V-model shows service requirements down to the detailed service design. The right-hand side focuses on the validation activities that are performed against these specifications.

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5. Which of these statements is not part of the purpose of the SACM process?

A. Control of the assets that make up our services

B. Management of the changes to our service assets

C. Identification of service assets

D. Capture accurate information about service assets

The purpose of the SACM process is to identify and control the assets that make up our services and to maintain accurate information about these assets.

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6. Which of these statements best describes a configuration record?

A. Any resource or capability that could contribute to the delivery of a service

B. Manage a service asset to deliver an IT service

C. Attributes and relationships stored in the configuration management database.

D. Categorization of the CIs that make up the services

A configuration record captures the information about a configuration item and records the attributes and relationships. It is stored in the CMDB.

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7.  Which of the following statements concerning the value of the CMS database to the business is not correct?

A. It helps prevent unnecessary purchases of licenses or equipment by identifying spare items that can be reused.

B. It ensures that the service desk staff have the knowledge they require to resolve incidents.

C. It avoids the organization being fined for not being able to prove that all of its software is legal.

D. It helps prevent failed changes by allowing an accurate impact assessment.

Although it may help provide background information to an incident, the CMS would not normally contain known errors and so forth.

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8. Which of the following is not a potential danger when implementing SACM?

A. Examining the related CIs for every change may slow down the process.

B. Staff may not realize the importance of the process.

C. The cost of maintaining the level of detail being gathered may not be matched by the benefits from having the information.

D. Ineffective change management may make maintaining an accurate CMS impossible.

This information will be easily available in the CMS once the process is implemented, saving time and reducing the risk of changes. Staff members need to understand the criticality of an accurate CMS through an awareness campaign. The level of detail maintained must match the value of such information, and without effective change management, effective SACM is impossible.

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9. Service operation includes which of the following activities?

A. Testing the service

B. Rolling out the service

C. Deciding whether to retire the service

D. Optimizing the service

Testing and rolling out the service is part of the service transition stage, and the decision to retire the service is strategic.

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10. Which process from lifecycle stages does not fall under the service operation stage?

A. IT service continuity management

B. Availability management

C. Service level management

D. Design coordination

Design coordination takes place solely within the service design lifecycle stage, whereas the other processes have elements of operational activity.

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11. Which of the following is the correct list of service operation functions described in ITIL?

A. Technical management function, facilities management function, service desk function

B. desktop support function, Infrastructure management function, service desk function, application management function.

C. Technical management function, operations management function, application management function, service desk function

D. Technical management function, service desk function, application development function

In ITIL, the service operation function is mentioned as Technical management function, operations management function, application management function, service desk function

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12. Identify the activities which the facilities management not responsible for?

A. Air-conditioners maintenance in server rooms to the required level.

B. Define the requirements of infrastructure to support the services

C. Required power supply at disaster recovery sites.

D. Testing the UPS and generators

The facilities management is not responsible for defining the infrastructure requirements to support the services

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13. The ability to store templates for common incidents to define the steps takes to resolve the fault in the service management tool is called?

A. Major incidents

B. Minor incidents

C. Incident models

D. Incident categories

These are called incident models. A model is a repeatable way of dealing with a particular item, in this case, a particular type of incident. It defines steps to be taken to resolve the incident along with timescales and escalation points. This speeds up logging and improves consistency.

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14. The service desk is not responsible for which of the following?

A. Provide the first point of contact

B. Resolving straightforward incidents

C. Preventing incidents from recurring

D. Providing updates to users

The problem management process is responsible for the prevention of incidents, including recurrent. The service desk does not undertake problem management, it provides the first point of contact, resolves as many incidents as possible during the first contact, and updates users regarding the progress of incidents that have been assigned to second-line support teams.

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15. Which of the following is not a service desk structure described in ITIL?

A. Virtual

B. Matrix

C. Follow the sun

D. Local

Matrix is not recognized as a service desk structure in the ITIL framework.

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16. Which of these activities is facilities management not responsible for?

A. Air-condition maintenance in the server rooms

B. Define the infrastructure requirements to support the services

C. Ensuring that the power supply at disaster recovery sites meets the requirement

D. Testing the UPS and generators

Defining the infrastructure requirements will be part of service design.

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17. There are two elements to operations management. What are they called?

A. Facilities management, operations development

B. Facilities ownership, operations control

C. Console management, facilities management

D. Facilities management, operations control

Facilities management and operations control are the two elements of operations management.

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18. Which of the following correctly identifies an objective of the technical management function?

A. Planning and designing the technical aspects of any new or changed service

B. Carrying out the backup and restore of files for users

C. Planning and designing the applications for any new services

D. Answering user calls and dealing with requests

Technical management deals with the technical aspects of new or changed services.

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19. What is the MoSCoW technique used for?

A. Categorization of requirements

B. Categorization of incidents and problems

C. Categorization of service desk components

D. Design of the SKMS

The Must, Should, Could, Would (MoSCoW) technique is used to categorize requirements in the selection of a tool. For example, the tool must have the ability to link incident records to problem records.

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20. What are the 4 Ps of service design?

A. People, principles, products, policies

B. Process, policies, principles, projects

C. Process, people, products, policies

D. People, process, partners, products

The 4 Ps of service design are the four aspects of service design that ensure a robust design that meets the requirement. The first aspect is people, calculating the number of people required to support the new service and ensuring that they have the necessary skill set to do so effectively. The second aspect to be considered is a process the service design processes and any additional processes, such as authorization or procurement processes. The third aspect is partners—ensuring that the best suppliers are chosen since they provide components of the service. The final aspect is the products—the services being designed and the technology and tools to support the service later.

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21. What is meant by “holistic” service design?

A. The design can be implemented without the users being affected.

B. The design has taken into account all five aspects of design.

C. The design is balanced between functionality, resources, and the required schedule.

D. The design has been costed to show the total cost of ownership

A holistic approach ensures that each of the following five aspects is considered:

The design of the actual solution itself. The service management system and tools that will be required to manage the service. The management and technology architectures that the service will use. The processes needed to support the service in operation. The measurement systems, methods, and metrics that will be required.

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22. Which of the following is not a possible risk when designing a service?

A. The design will be inflexible, and therefore unable to adapt to meet changing requirements.

B. Insufficient time spent on warranty aspects may mean the service is not fit for use.

C. Insufficient time spent on warranty aspects may mean the service is not fit for purpose.

D. The delivery date may be missed.

An inflexible design, late delivery, and insufficient focus on the warranty aspects of capacity, availability, service continuity, and security all pose risks to the success of the design. Option C is incorrect because it wrongly describes warranty as fit for purpose. Warranty describes fitness for use.

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23. Capacity management includes three subprocesses. What are they?

A. Service capacity, business capacity, component capacity

B. System capacity, business capacity, component capacity

C. Service capacity, business capacity, configuration capacity

D. System capacity, business capacity, infrastructure capacity

The subprocesses of capacity management described in the ITIL framework are business, service, and component capacity management.

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24. IT service continuity management carries out a BIA in conjunction with the business. What does BIA stand for?

A. Business integrity appraisal

B.  Business information alternatives

C. Benefit integration assessment

D. Business impact analysis

BIA stands for Business impact analysis

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25. In which stages of the IT service continuity lifecycle does testing take place?

A. Initiation and ongoing operation

B. Initiation and implementation

C. Implementation and ongoing operation

D. Requirements and strategy and ongoing operation

Testing takes place during implementation and ongoing operation.

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26. Which of these considerations for reporting requirements for service management tools is important?

A. Only industry-standard reports should be generated.

B. No reporting capability should be integrated into the tool; it should be managed separately.

C. There should be a good selection of generic reports.

D. There should be a good selection of generic reports supported by the easy generation of custom reports.

Reporting is essential in service management. A good tool will have a selection of generic reports but should also provide the functionality to support tailored report requirements to support organizational needs.

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27. Which of these is not one of the phases of the release and deployment process?

A. Release and deployment planning

B. Deployment

C. Review and close

D. Verification and audit

Verification and audit is a step in the SACM process

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28. In which phase of the release and deployment process does early life support happen?

A. Release build and test

B. Review and close

C. Deployment

D. Release deployment and planning

Early life support takes place in the deployment phase, where the handover to service operation takes place.

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29. Which of the following service design processes is not discussed in relation to service offerings and agreements?

A. Service level management

B. Capacity management

C. Supplier management

D. Service catalog management

The service design processes discussed in relation to service offerings and agreements include service level management, supplier management, service catalog management, and design coordination. The remaining service design processes of availability, capacity, IT service continuity management, and information security management are out of scope for service offerings and agreements.

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30. Which of the following lists show the aspects of warranty defined in the ITIL guidance?

A. Integration, capacity, consistency, and continuity

B. Cost-effectiveness, integration, availability, security

C. Security, capacity, availability, and consistency

D. Security, capacity, availability, and continuity

The ability of a service to be available when needed, provide the required capacity, required reliability is warranty.

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31. Which of the following is the best description of an underpinning contract?

A. An agreement between an IT service provider and others providing services in the same organization.

B. A contract between IT service provider and customer to the delivery of services

C.  A contract between different customers about the requirements of the service

D. A contract between IT service provider and third-party vendor for the delivery of services

An underpinning contract is an agreement between IT service provider and an external third party organization assisting in the delivery of services.

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32. Define Budgeting

A. The process for identifying the actual costs, comparing them with budgeted costs, and managing variance from the budget.

B. A framework that allows the service provider to determine the costs of providing services

C. The activity of predicting and controlling the spending of money

D. The ability to understand the costs of a service relative to its business value

Budgeting is defined as an act of predicting and controlling the spending of money.